2:1-3:20
- Sam Storms
- Nov 2, 2006
- Series: Romans
I. Epistolary
Introduction - 1:1-17
II. The
Way of Salvation - 1:18-5:21
A. Human
Depravity: the doctrine of universal sin - 1:18-3:20
1. Sin & Condemnation of the Gentiles
- 1:18-32
2. Sin & Condemnation of the Jews -
2:1-3:8
Two
introductory comments. (1) The key to understanding Paul's argument in 1:18-3:8
are his statements in 3:9 and 3:19. As if a prosecuting
attorney, Paul is determined to demonstrate "that both Jews and Greeks
are all under sin" (3:9). The desired result of his argument is "that
every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God"
(3:19). (2) That Paul is now, in 2:1-3:8, indicting the Jew (as he did the
Gentile in 1:18-32), is evident from several factors: (a) Jews were inclined to
judge Gentiles for their religious/moral perversity; (b) the person addressed
in chp. 2 is the recipient of divine kindness, forbearance, and patience (v.
4); (c) Paul's point is that special privilege/advantage does not exempt one
from judgment; but this is what the Jews mistakenly believed; and (d) v. 17
("Jew").
a. the failure
of the Jews - 2:1-29
1) principles of judgment - vv. 1-16
[People object
to the concept of divine judgment, accusing God of being unfair, because they
presume upon divine grace, taking it for granted.]
a) fundamentals of judgment: its characteristics - vv. 1-5
1 - judgment is universal - vv. 1-2
Paul's
indictment of the Jew is not that he recognizes sin and denounces others for
committing it. Indeed, according to v. 2, Paul expects Jews to acknowledge and
agree that Gentiles who engage in the behavior described in chapter one are
truly deserving judgment. Thus, he indicts him because he judges others for the
very things he himself practices. It is self-righteous hypocrisy that provokes the apostle's words.
According to v.
2, this judgment that falls on the Jewish moralist no less than on the Gentile
pagan, is, lit., "according to the truth," i.e., according to the
facts as God sees them. Be it noted,
however, that when Paul says the Jew does “the same things” he does not mean
that Jewish people were engaging in overt homosexuality and idolatry as the
Gentiles were. He most likely has in view the vices of 1:29-31.
2 - judgment is unavoidable - vv. 3-5
a - presuming
upon God's grace - vv. 3-4
Cf. Mt. 3:9 for
the Jewish belief in exemption from divine judgment. As Moo points out,
"the assumption of God's special favor toward His people had already in
the OT period become a source of false security for those within Israel who
were not living faithfully within the covenant, as the preaching of the
prophets abundantly indicates" (132).
b - piling up God's wrath - v. 5
The word used
in v. 5, translated "stubbornness", is the Greek sklerotes, from which we get the term "sclerosis", as in
"arterial sclerosis" or hardening of the arteries. Another word of
significance is the one translated “storing up” (thesaurizeis), from which we get our English term “thesaurus” (a
treasury of words). Schreiner contends that Paul uses it here in an ironic
sense “for it typically denotes the future bliss Jews would have because of
their good works” (109).
A brief
excursus on the doctrine of Hell:
The word most
often translated "hell" in the NT is Gehenna, the Greek equivalent for "the
b) foundations of judgment: its criteria - vv. 6-15
1 - judgment
is according to what a man does - vv.
6-10
a - the
principle asserted - v. 6
b - the
principle applied - vv. 7-10
These verses
pose an obvious theological problem. Vv.
7,10,13 appear to say that eternal life is the reward to those who persevere in
doing good deeds. But isn't this inconsistent with the doctrine of salvation by
grace? Or to put it more bluntly,
Romans 2:7,10,13 appear to be in blatant contradiction with Romans 3:20. There
are four possible interpretations.
(1) Some say Paul is inconsistent; that he
does in fact contradict himself. But surely Paul is not so ignorant as to
assert in 2:7-13 what he denies in 3:20,28.
(2) One might choose to argue that the
difference between 2:13 and 3:20 is the difference between how salvation was
available in the OT and how it is available in the NT. In other words, in the
old era, under the Mosaic covenant, doing the law could justify, but in the new
era, under the New covenant, it no longer can. Now, faith alone justifies.
There are two obvious problems with this view. First, this makes Paul's point
in Romans 2:13 totally irrelevant to his readers, since they live in the
present, New covenant, era. But worse still, Paul clearly and on several
occasions insists that obedience to the Mosaic Law could never justify (see esp. Gal. 3:21). Salvation in the OT was never based on works of obedience to he
law.
(3) Others argue that Paul is speaking hypothetically. He is saying that only
perfect obedience would gain a righteousness of which God approves, but such
obedience is not practically possible. In other words, he is stating a
principle that is true enough in its own right, i.e., it is theoretically true, but never practically attained. Moo opts for this
view. Note his explanation:
"It is a
continual seeking after eternal rewards, accompanied by a persistent doing of
what is good, that is the condition for a positive verdict at [the] judgment.
Paul never denies the validity of this principle, but he goes on to show that
no one meets the conditions necessary for this principle to become a
reality" (141).
Thus, according
to Moo,
"vv. 7 and
10 set forth what is called in traditional theological (especially Lutheran)
language 'the law.' Paul sets forth the biblical conditions for attaining
eternal life apart from Christ. Understood this way, Paul is not [actually]
speaking hypothetically. But once his doctrine of human powerlessness under sin
has been developed (cf. 3:9 especially), it becomes clear that the promise can,
in fact, never become operative, because the condition for its fulfillment --
consistent, earnest seeking after good -- can never be realized" (141).
Thus, in principle obedience to the law justifies
one in God's sight (2:7,10,13), but in practice
no one can obey the law (3:10-18). Therefore, no one will be justified through
the law (3:20).
(4) Another suggestion is that Paul is
addressing two different situations. In 3:20 he has in mind one's initial
entrance into salvation, that inaugural event when God declares one righteous
in his sight through faith in Christ. In 2:13 (based on 2:7,10), on the other
hand, he refers to the final judgment when one's works or good deeds, being the
evidence or fruit of saving faith, will "vindicate" the individual or
reveal him/her to be in righteous standing before God.
According to
this view, Paul is advocating a judgment
based on works. Appeal is made to similar texts in Gal. 5:21; 6:8; 1 Cor.
6:9-10; Eph. 5:5-6. The point is that good works secure entrance into eternal
life insofar as they are the product of
a true saving faith. A mere profession of faith in Christ without
perseverance in good deeds will not avail on the day of judgment. According to
this view, "Paul's statements in Romans 2 are not merely hypothetical;
those who fail to do good works will face judgment, while those who practice
good works will experience eternal life" (Thomas Schreiner, The Law and its Fulfillment: A Pauline
Theology of Law [Grand Rapids: Baker, 1993], 187).
Schreiner
explains this view:
". . .
even though Paul asserts that no one can attain salvation by good works [which
is his point in 3:20], he also insists that no one can be saved without them,
and that they are necessary to obtain an eschatological inheritance [which is
his point in 2:7,10,13]. The Spirit's work in a person produces obedience to
the law (Rom. 2:26-29). The saving work of Jesus Christ radically changes
people so that they can now obey the law they previously disobeyed (see
In sum, judgment is based on works, not because
works merit salvation, but because works manifest faith. Or: sola
fide iustificat, sed non fide quae est sola! I.e., “faith alone
justifies, but not the faith which is alone!”
2 - judgment
is according to what a man knows -
vv. 11-15
a - the principle asserted - v. 11
b - the
principle applied - vv. 12-15
Paul’s primary
purpose here is to demonstrate to the Jews that mere possession of the Law does
not, in and of itself, bring salvation and thus does not, in and of itself,
constitute an advantage over the Gentiles.
In v. 12, Paul
declares that those who sin without the law will perish. But why? Verses 14-16
give the reason: “Gentiles are fairly judged for their sin because even without
knowing the Mosaic law they are conscious of moral norms and yet do not
consistently keep them” (Schreiner, 119). In other words, Gentiles who do not
have THE law of God (the Mosaic Law)
are not completely without law. The basic moral principles revealed in the Law
of God (obedience to parents, do not murder, do not lie, etc.) are inscribed on
their hearts, indelibly embedded in their conscience by virtue of the fact that
they are created in the image of God, no less than the Jews. Unsaved Gentiles,
says Paul, manifest an innate awareness of God's moral demands, their
conscience either accusing or acquitting them.
An objection
often found on the lips of skeptics is that it is unfair of God to hold people
morally accountable and to judge them for failure to obey a “law” of which they
are ignorant. But here Paul clearly reminds us that no one is utterly without
divine law and that each and every one will be judged according to their
response to the “law” they have received (whether carved in tablets of stone,
as with the Jews, or merely on the tablet of one’s heart, as with the Gentile).
It is important
to note that when Paul speaks of the “work of the law written in their hearts”
(v. 15) he is not alluding to the truth of Jeremiah 31:33. In this latter text,
the prophet speaks of the time when God’s saving work among his people will
entail the writing of the law on their hearts. Paul’s purpose in v. 15, on the
other hand, is simply to demonstrate that the Gentiles have an inner, intuitive
awareness of the law and its obligatory force. When Paul says in v. 14 that
they are “a law to themselves” he has in mind “what is natively human [by
virtue of having been created in God’s image], not what is supplied by the Holy
Spirit [by virtue of having been redeemed]” (Schreiner, 123).
Paul’s
reference to Gentile "obedience" to certain divine moral principles
does not imply they are saved or that this is an obedience that secures merit
for them in God's presence. In the first place, the text emphasizes that
“accusing” thoughts predominate and that “defending” thoughts are relatively
rare, or at least the exception rather than the rule. Secondly, the opening
statement of v. 12 confirms this point. Paul “introduces the Gentiles by
stating that those who sin without the law will perish without it. Verses 14-16
fill in the basis on which the judgment of the Gentiles occurs. They are judged
by the law that is written in their hearts and attested by their conscience.
They will eternally perish and face condemnation because of their failure to
keep the law” (Schreiner, 124). Thus both the Jews and Gentiles will be judged
for their failure to keep the law which they both, in ways unique to each,
possessed.
c) the finality of judgment: its conclusion - v. 16
It is
staggering to think that the “secrets” of our souls, those obscure and hidden
thoughts, those veiled fantasies and silent sins, will all be laid bare before
God on the day of judgment. How does this affect your life now?
Addendum:
An Alternative Interpretation of Romans 2:12-16
N. T. Wright (“The Law in Romans 2,” in Paul and the Mosaic Law, ed. James D. G.
Dunn [Eerdmans, 2001], 131-50) has proposed a reading of Rom. 2:12-16 that, if
true, would cast considerable doubt on the traditional understanding of this
text. Wright’s argument is based on, among other contextual clues, two
grammatical observations.
First, he argues that the “for” (gar) with which v. 14 opens indicates
that this verse is an explanation of the principle stated in v. 13. In other
words, the “doers of the law who shall be justified” (v. 13) are none other
than the “Gentiles” of v. 14. But who are these Gentiles who will be justified
by doing the law?
This leads to Wright’s second point,
which pertains to the word translated “by nature” (phusei). More traditional views have taken this word with what
follows, hence: “for when Gentiles who do not have the law do by nature the things of the
law they, not having the law, are a law to themselves.” On this
reading, “by nature” means something like “instinctively” or “by virtue of
something in their constitution” as divine image-bearers. In other words, in
some way these unregenerate Gentiles have had the law of God written on their
hearts as a constituent element in their status as image-bearers. Though
unsaved, they are not without knowledge of what God requires, of the
fundamental principles of right and wrong. These they have “by nature”. Wright,
however, contends that “by nature” should be taken with what precedes and
should be translated in a way that is consistent with its usage a mere thirteen
verses later in 2:27. In the latter text phusis
means what the Gentiles are or have “by birth”. Their “natural” state is
uncircumcised. This leads Wright to translate 2:14 as follows: “for when
Gentiles who do not by nature have the law do the things of the law
they, not having the law, are a law to themselves.” Thus “by ‘nature’, that is,
by birth, they are outside the covenant, not within Torah. And yet they ‘do the
things of Torah’ (v. 14)” (145). Although it may seem unusual from a
grammatical point of view, a similar construction is found in Rom. 14:1 (in
which the substantive participle is followed, rather than preceded, by its
modifying dative).
These Gentiles, therefore, who by birth
did not have the law of God, yet do the things of the law, are Christian Gentiles, not unbelievers.
This is confirmed by 2:15 which, Wright contends, is in fact a direct allusion
to the new covenant of Jer. 31:33 and its promise of God putting his law within
his people and writing it on their hearts. Says Wright, “I find it next to
impossible that Paul could have written this phrase, with its overtones of
Jeremiah’s new covenant promise, simply to refer to pagans who happen by
accident to share some of
But if the Gentiles in 2:14 are Christians,
what is the meaning of 2:15 and the reference to an inner uncertainty, as it
were, concerning their status before God? Says Wright:
“They are not simply lawless Gentiles; but the Jewish law,
which is now in some sense or other written on their hearts, and which in some
sense they ‘do’, nevertheless has a sufficiently ambiguous relation to them for
them to still be concerned that the eventual issue might be in doubt. Hence, as
judgment day approaches, they may well find inner conflict as they reflect on
their situation. They would not have this inner conflict were they not
Christians. The situation would then be the simply [sic] one of v. 12” (146).
Wright
concludes that Rom. 2:14-15 is not talking about the function of the divine
image or conscience in unregenerate Gentiles by which they demonstrate an
intuitive knowledge of the law of God. Rather, these are Christian Gentiles
who, in fulfillment of the new covenant promise in Jeremiah, have had the law
of God written in their hearts by the Spirit. Although they were born without
the law, being outside the covenant God established through Moses, they now
have the law in fulfillment of God’s promise to establish a new covenant. These
are the “doers of the law” (v. 13) who will find themselves vindicated
(justified) at the final judgment.
If Wright’s interpretation is correct,
the principal textual support for the idea of general revelation in the
conscience of mankind is lost.
2) practices of the Jews - vv. 17-29
a) the folly of a religious phony - vv.
17-24
(refusing to
practice what you preach by relying on your privileges and position)
1 - their boast - vv. 17-20
As Cranfield
notes, "Paul appears to be deliberately taking up claims which were
actually being made by his fellow Jews, echoing the very language in which they
were being expressed" (164).
a - their
privileges in relation to God - vv. 17-18
Are the
privileges listed here to be viewed negatively or positively? Probably the
latter. Paul lists 5 of them: (1) The name ("Jew"), in which they
took great pride. (2) Their reliance on the Law, which wasn’t necessarily a bad
thing (see Ps. 19:7-11; Ps. 119). Unfortunately, the Jewish man relied "on
it in the sense of thinking to fulfill it in such a way as to put God in his
debt or of imagining complacently that the mere fact of possessing it gives him
security against God's judgment" (Cranfield,164). (3) Their boast in God;
cf. Rom. 5:11; 1 Cor. 1:31; 2 Cor. 10:17 (unfortunately, their boast was
exclusivistic: "God is mine, not
yours, and you can't have Him"). (4) Their knowledge of the divine will;
and (5) their spiritual discernment that came from a knowledge of the Law are
both wonderful advantages.
b - their
prerogatives in relation to men - vv. 19-20
Again, there
are 5 of them: (1) they were spiritual guides to the spiritually blind; (2)
they were a light to those in darkness (cf. Isa. 42:6-7); (3) they were
corrector to the foolish (practical moral guidance; cf. Mt. 23:15); (4)
teachers of the immature; and (5) possessors of the truth ("The Jew's
confidence that he can be the four things just mentioned rests on his
conviction that in the law he possesses the embodiment of knowledge and truth,
i.e., knowledge and truth in a form which can be grasped, expressed clearly and
understandably" [Cranfield,167]).
2 - their behavior - vv. 21-24
Here in vv.
21-24 the argument takes a different turn, as Paul points out how despite their
advantages the Jews had failed to live up to their calling.
a - conduct
versus claim - vv. 21-23
Once more, Paul
gives 5 examples: (1) teaching; (2) stealing; (3) committing adultery (cf. Mt.
5:21-48); (4) robbing temples; and (5) boasting in the Law (he has in mind
boasting in the sense of thinking that by obedience to the Law one can put God
in one's debt, also, boasting in the sense of, on the basis of the former,
looking down one's nose at others).
The reference
to “robbing temples” has sparked considerable debate. Is it literal or
metaphorical? Probably the former, notes Schreiner (133), as “Paul highlights an
inconsistency among the Jews. They claim to detest idolatry and spurn any
association with idols, yet they are willing to be defiled by profiting from
the very idols they detest.”
But was it
actually the case that all Jews were thieves, adulterers, and robbed temples?
Of course not! This certainly wouldn’t apply to Paul prior to his conversion.
“We should recognize that Paul [here] engages in a piece of rhetoric designed
to argue for the principle that the Jews did not keep the very law they
possessed and taught. . . To conclude that these examples charge every Jew of
committing these particular sins is a mistake. Paul uses particularly blatant
and shocking examples (like any good preacher) to illustrate the principle that
Jews violated the law that they possessed. Moo observes rightly, ‘It is not,
then, that all Jews commit these sins, but that these sins are representative
of the contradiction between claim and conduct that does pervade Judaism’” (Schreiner, 134).
b - conclusion - v. 24
This is a citation
of Isa. 52:5. The principle by which the Gentile reasoned was this: "A
people are like their God."
b) the foundation of a phony religion -
vv. 25-29
(the belief
that an external ritual compensates for the absence of an internal reality)
Robert C. Roberts
has a good description of the dangers of ritualism. In ritualism,
"you
identify being a Christian with having certain experiences or doing certain
actions, in church. The right sounds and sights and maybe smells, the right
chants and vestments, exquisite music, and the right genuflections and
self-crossings -- all coordinated and blended like an eight-course French
dinner -- are calculated to create a mood of reverence and holy mystery. When
these liturgical actions, performed in lush stained-glass darkness, send
goosebumps roaming down your back and cause little floods of wetness to well up
behind your eyeballs, then you know in your heart that you are a true
Christian."
There is also a
low form of ritualism. That is to
say,
"if you're
from Bumpkin Ridge you may need a different strategy than genuflections and
incense. It's the old favorite hymns that make you feel the religion in your
heart. 'Rock of Ages, Cleft for Me,' 'In the Garden,' 'Throw Out the Lifeline,'
'I love to tell the Story.' And it's not the priest crossing himself that makes
you feel religious, but the thump of his fist on the pulpit, and the song
leader flingin' his arms every which way. If there isn't enough arms-flingin'
and Bible-thumping, the Holy Spirit just doesn't grip on you. And it's not the
goose bumps traveling down the spine, but the sweat collecting in the armpits
and hanging down from your glasses. If the high liturgy was a French dinner,
this is a hotdog and a coke."
1 - the outward ritual - vv. 25-27
a - ritual
without reality is unrighteousness - v. 25
b - reality
without ritual is righteousness - vv. 26-27
When Paul says
that the uncircumcised Gentile is regarded as circumcised, he means that he/she
is part of God’s redeemed community notwithstanding the absence of the physical
mark in one’s flesh.
2 - the inward reality - vv. 28-29
a - being
a true Jew is not a matter of heritage
- v. 28
b - being
a true Jew is a matter of heart - v.
29
So, how can
uncircumcised Gentiles belong to the people of God without submitting to the
physical rite? “Paul’s answer in verse 29 is that physical circumcision and
being an ethnic Jew are unnecessary to belong to the people of God. What counts
is being ‘a Jew in secret’ . . . that is, in the heart, and possessing ‘the circumcision
of the heart’” (Schreiner, 141). Thus, here Paul defines the essence of what it
is to be a true Jew. He couldn't be
any more explicit than this: the true
Jew, the true Israelite, is not that man or woman who has Abraham's blood in
his veins but the one who has Abraham's faith in his heart. The mark of
being a citizen of the
Ought we then
to call the Church spiritual
b. the faithfulness
of God - 3:1-8
A brief word on
the literary device known as diatribe.
Douglas Moo explains:
"Paul
utilizes here, and sporadically throughout the letter, a literary genre called
the diatribe. In this genre, an author
gets his point across by engaging in an imaginary discussion or debate with a
student or opponent. Elements of this style include frequent questions, posed
by the author himself to his conversation partner or by the conversation
partner, emphatic rejections of possible objections to a line of argument using
me genoito ("May it never
be!"), and the direct address of one's conversation partner or opponent.
Romans 3:1-8 is a particularly clear example of this dialogical style; and
chap. 2, while not containing any true dialogue, is similar to those parts of
the diatribe in which the 'teacher' rebukes his conversation partner by
exposing his presumption and inconsistency (cf. 2:1: 'you have no excuse, O
man'; 2:3: 'Do you suppose, O man'; 2:17: 'If you call yourself a Jew,'
etc.)" (124-25).
1) the first objection raised - v. 1
2) the first objection refuted - v. 2
One can almost
hear Paul's Jewish friends thinking to themselves:
"If
physical circumcision does not contribute to salvation, if being a descendant
of Abraham does not guarantee blessing, if the Law brings a knowledge and
conviction of sin, and if we Jews are as liable to judgment as Gentiles, What good is there in being a Jew at all?"
By the way, the word translated “benefit” is opheleia. Its verb form was used in 2:25
and there meant “saving advantage.” It is likely that the same connotation is
present here. Paul’s question, then, is this: “Is there any saving advantage in being a Jew or
possessing physical circumcision?” More on this below.
C. K. Barrett
explains the force of the objection:
"If the OT
is to be believed God did choose the
Jews out of all mankind and did
bestow special privileges upon them. To reduce them therefore to the level of
other nations is either to accuse the OT of falsehood, or to accuse God of
failing to carry out his plans. It is this theological objection to his thesis
that Paul is bound to meet" (62).
On
It is here that
we expect a long list of advantages and blessings that God bestowed on the
Jewish people during the age of the OT (cf. his "first of all" in v.
2a). But he mentions on the one (the "oracles of God"), breaks off
his argument, and resumes it at 9:3-5.
3) the second objection raised - v. 3
4) the second objection refuted - v. 4
Virtually all
of Romans 9-11 is designed to answer this (v. 3) powerful and confusing
objection.
5) the third objection raised - vv. 5,7,8
6) the third objection refuted - v. 6
3. Sin and Condemnation of all Mankind -
3:9-20
a. the charge
- v. 9
It would appear
that Paul asks the same question within the span of a few verses and then
proceeds to provide contradictory answers. To the question in 3:1, “what
advantage has the Jew?” he answered, “great in every respect” (3:2). But to the
question in 3:9, “Are we (Jews) better than they (Gentiles)?” he answers, “not
at all” (3:9). How can we avoid this discrepancy? “Only by clarifying what
benefit or ‘advantage’ he has in mind,” notes Stott. “If he means privilege and
responsibility, then the Jews have much because God has entrusted his
revelation to them. But if he means favouritism, then the Jews have none, because
God will not exempt them from judgment” (99).
The word
translated "charged" (NASB) is rendered "proved" in the
KJV. But Paul has not proven the universal guilt of the human race. He has
indicted or charged or accused the human race. The proof is found in vv. 10-18.
b. the confirmation
- vv. 10-18
Note Paul's
emphasis on the universality of sin:
no fewer than 8 times in the first 3 verses he uses words like
"none", "all", "no, not even one" in order to
make his point. These are what I call emphatic
universal negatives, i.e., no exceptions allowed! Here we encounter the
supreme irony in human life:
"The
supreme irony of the human situation in every age is that the one thing, and
only thing, in which all mankind is concretely at one is sin. And the irrational paradox of it is that it makes any other
sort of unity impossible. The unity for which men strive in various ways is
always being negated by the unity for which they never need to strive -- their
unity in sin" (D. R. Davies).
[Note
the structure of this list that follows in vv. 10-18. Verses 10-12 describe the
universality of sin similar to what we saw in 1:18-23. Verses 13-14 focus on
sins of speech. Verses 15-17 focus on sins in society at large. Verse 18
identifies the ground and root cause of all the sins just noted: the failure to
fear God.]
1) man's character - vv. 10-12
Paul goes out
of his way to emphasize the universality of sin. Five times he uses the Greek
phrase ouk estin = “there is none”.
The one line that lacks this phrase has instead the Greek work pantes = “all”, which points to the
pervasiveness of sin. Again, in vv. 10 and 12 he uses the words oude heis = “there is not even one” and heos henos = “not even one.” Point made!
a) men don't obey God - vv. 10,12b
Is there any
sense in which unrighteous, unsaved people can be said to do good?
b) men don't understand God - v. 11a
Cf. esp. 1 Cor.
2:14. Why do they not understand? It isn't because they lack sufficient mental
ability nor is it because of a lack of evidence (cf. Rom. 1). It comes from a willful refusal to keep God in their
thinking.
c) men don't want God - vv. 11b-12a
How does the
statement, "There is none who seeks
for God" affect the subject of free
will? If none seek for God, how is it that anyone ever gets saved?
But what about
all those people who appear to be "seeking" God; those who are
"searching" for more? R. C. Sproul answers:
"We see
people searching desperately for peace of mind, relief from guilt, meaning and
purpose to their lives, and loving acceptance. We know that ultimately these
things can only be found in God. Therefore we conclude that since people are
seeking these things they must be seeking after God. [But] people do not seek
God. They seek after the benefits that
only God can give them. The sin of fallen man is this: Man seeks the
benefits of God while at the same time fleeing from God himself. We are, by
nature, fugitives."
2) man's conduct - vv. 13-18
c. the conclusion
- vv. 19-20
Here in v. 19 Paul says that the Law of
Moses was given to the Jews so that “every mouth,” including “Gentile mouths,”
might be closed, and so that “all the world,” including the “Gentile world,”
may become accountable to God. But how could Jewish possession of the Law make
the whole world liable to God’s judgment? Paul’s point appears to be that “if
the Jews, who had the privilege of being God’s covenantal and elect people,
could not keep the law, then it follows that no one, including the Gentiles,
can” (Schreiner, 168).